How does a "practicing homosexual Christian" justify their lifestyle in the face of 1Cor. 6?

They cannot,

http://www.carm.org/can-practicing-homosexuals-be-...

I Corinthians 6:9

King James Version:

9...Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate [malakoi], nor abusers of themselves with mankind [arsenokoitai], 10 Nor thieves..., shall inherit the kingdom of God.

New International Version

9...Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes [malakoi] nor homosexual offenders [arsenokoitai] 10 nor thieves...will inherit the kingdom of God.

Revised Standard Version--1952 edition:

9...Do not be deceived; neither the immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexuals [malakoi and arsenokoitai], 10 nor thieves..., will inherit the kingdom of God.

Revised Standard Version--1971 edition:

9...Do not be deceived; neither the immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor sexual perverts [malakoi and arsenokoitai], 10 nor thieves..., will inherit the kingdom of God.

A comparison of how the two Greek words (malakoi and arsenokoitai) are translated in the different versions shows that translations often, unfortunately, become the interpretations of the translators. In I Cor. 6:9 Paul lists the types of persons who will be excluded from the kingdom of God and for some he uses the Greek words malakoi and arsenokoitai. KJ translates the first "effeminate," a word that has no necessary connection with homosexuals. The NIV translates the first "male prostitutes" and the second, "homosexual offenders". The RSV in its first edition of 1952 translated both words by the single term, "homosexuals". In the revised RSV of 1971, the translation "homosexuals" is discarded and the two Greek words are translated as "sexual perverts"; obviously the translators had concluded the earlier translation was not supportable.

Malakoi literally means "soft" and is translated that way by both KJ and RSV in Matt. 11:8 and Luke 7:25. When it is used in moral contexts in Greek writings it has the meaning of morally weak; a related word, malakia, when used in moral contexts, means dissolute and occasionally refers to sexual activity but never to homosexual acts. There are at least five Greek words that specifically mean people who practice same-gender sex. Unquestionably, if Paul had meant such people, he would not have used a word that is never used to mean that in Greek writings when he had other words that were clear in that meaning. He must have meant what the word commonly means in moral contexts, "morally weak." There is no justification, most scholars agree, for translating it "homosexuals."

Arsenokoitai, is not found in any extant Greek writings until the second century when it apparently means "pederast", a corrupter of boys, and the sixth century when it is used for husbands practicing anal intercourse with their wives. . "Arsenokoitai" is made up of two parts: "arsen" means "man"; "koitai" means "beds." Although the word in English Bibles is interpreted as referring to homosexuals, we can be fairly certain that this is not the meaning that Paul wanted to convey. If he had, he would have used the word "paiderasste." That was the standard Greek term at the time for sexual behavior between males. We can conclude that he probably meant something different than people who engaged in male-male adult sexual behavior. Some scholars think probably the second century use might come closest to Paul's intention. If so, there is no justification for translating the word as "homosexuals."

I hope this helps your study of the Bible and what it really says.

Whenever we want to be right in our sin we will find a way to make the scriptures say what we need them to say. However, this does not mean that God does not love us because He does. He hates the sin and want us to do right for our sake so that we can live in peace and prosper. Be not deceived. No matter what the sin is, whether it is lying, cheating, or sowing discord among the saints, God doesn't like any of it.

I am failing to see within Scripture that God loves people who are practicing sin. Nor do I see where those who are practicing sin are His children. And as for the question it seems that practicing sin and being a Christian is a contradiction in terms. For supposedly a Christian is someone who follows the teachings of Christ which states that to be His follower you will repent of sins. If one does not repent of sins how can they claim to follow Christ?

To marisa why would anyone read the passages refered to in Hebrew when the original language that those passages were written in was Greek?

Paul makes use of the notice "Arsenokoitai", which isn't recent in any extant Greek writings till the 2d century whilst it curiously potential "pederast", a corrupter of boys, and lower back interior the 6th century whilst that's used for husbands training anal intercourse with their better halves. "Arsenokoitai" is produced from 2 aspects: "arsen" potential "guy"; "koitai" potential "beds." whether the notice in English Bibles is interpreted as touching on homosexuals, we are able to be extremely specific that that may not the meaning that Paul needed to place across. If he had, he could have used the notice "paiderasste." That became into the standard Greek term on the time for sexual habit between men. we are able to end that he probable meant something distinctive than people who engaged in male-male person sexual habit. some pupils think of probable the 2d century use could come closest to Paul's purpose. if so, there is not any justification for translating the notice as "homosexuals."

I don't think they can. At that point, if you know what the Bible says and continue to practice homosexuality, then you are knowingly putting your own desires above God's law. But it isn't just that way for homosexuals. The same goes for anyone who lies, hates, has "perverse speech", and any other thing that God describes as sin. For me, if you are against the practice of homosexuality, you should have just the same amount of passion and firmness being against EVERY type of sin because God sees them all the same if you live a lifestyle of sin, no matter which one it is.

Also, people have "levels" of sins more often than not, from not-so-bad to horrible/ treacherous. God doesn't see it this way though, to Him, sin is sin and "the wages of sin is death" Romans 6:23 so hopefully anyone who is against homosexuality is also against all sin and living a righteous life as an example to others.

The Bible was written as a collection of books for how someone should live their life. Rather you believe in it, or if you don't. The Bible is up for interpretation, because words get new meanings over the years, reasons change, human mindset changes. So the Bible is always up for new interpretation.

If you read a verse one way, there will always be 1,000,000 people who read it another way, and vice-versa. (Also, just a quick tip, read the Bible in Greek as it was originally written. Then re-ask your question.)

[Edit] - You're correct, sorry about that. Old Testament was in Hebrew, and New Testament was in Greek. Sorry about that.

That is talking about rewards in heaven. You can make it into heaven as a homosexual, just don't expect any special things when you get there. =)

Moroni is not part of the word of God. Avoid it.

A practicing homosexual Christian would be a homosexual Christian who, for the sake of persevering in purity, lives chastely and refuses, with the help of God's grace, the temptation of engage in homosexual acts. This is not unlike the case of a practicing heterosexual Christian who is called by God to celibacy.

BTW, this answer in contingent on whether you meant the word "practicing" to refer to "homosexual" or to "Christian".

Pax!

+JMJ

How does a christian justify taking rights away from minorities.?

Many verses were taken out of context or misinterpreted. You should read what is on the website I am going to put up. It is very enlightening.